Latest [Sep 30, 2022] NCLEX-RN Exam Questions – Valid NCLEX-RN Dumps Pdf
NCLEX-RN Practice Test Questions Answers Updated 865 Questions
NEW QUESTION 80
A female client is seeking counseling for personal problems. She admits to being very unhappy lately at both home and work. During the nursing assessment, she uses many defense mechanisms. Which statement or action made by the client is an example of adaptive suppression?
- A. "I felt a lump in my breast 2 weeks ago. I put off getting it checked until after my sister's wedding."
- B. "My husband told me this morning that he wants a divorce. I am upset, but I cannot discuss the matter with him until after my company's board meeting today."
- C. "My son died 3 years ago. I still cannot bring myself to clean out his room."
- D. "I did not get the raise because my boss does not like me."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This statement is an example of adaptive rationalization. She is coping with her disappointment by rationalizing. This is adaptive because no harm is done to self or others. It is used to protect her ego. (B) This is an example of maladaptive suppression. She is suppressing the seriousness of the lump. It is maladaptive because delaying treatment will cause harm to her. (C) The client's actions are an example of maladaptive denial. She is denying her son's death by not facing his possessions. Until she faces his death, she cannot face reality. (D) This is an example of adaptive suppression. She realizes the impact of her husband's statement but delays discussion until she can devote her full attention to the matter.
NEW QUESTION 81
The nurse would expect to include which of the following when planning the management of the client with Lyme disease?
- A. IV amphotericin B
- B. High-protein diet with limited fluids
- C. Complete bed rest for 6-8 weeks
- D. Tetracycline treatment
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The client is not placed on complete bed rest for 6 weeks. (B) Tetracycline is the treatment of choice for children with Lyme disease who are over the age of 9. (C) IV amphotericin B is the treatment for histoplasmosis. (D) The client is not restricted to a high-protein diet with limited fluids.
NEW QUESTION 82
A client has returned to the unit following a left femoral popliteal bypass graft. Six hours later, his dorsalis pedis pulse cannot be palpated, and his foot is cool and dusky. The nurse should:
- A. Continue to monitor the foot
- B. Assure the client that his foot is fine
- C. Reposition and reassess the foot
- D. Notify the physician immediately
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The client is losing blood supply to his left foot. Continuing to monitor the foot will not help restore the blood supply to the foot. (B) The physician should be notified immediately because the client is losing blood supply to his left foot and is in danger of losing the foot and/or leg. (C) The presenting symptoms are of an emergency nature and require immediate intervention. (D) This action would be giving the client false assurance.
NEW QUESTION 83
The physician orders medication for a client's unpleasant side effects from the haloperidol. The most appropriate drug at this time is:
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Thiothixene
- C. Triazolam (Halcion)
- D. Benztropine
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, or antianxiety agent, that potentiates the effects of _-aminobutyric acid in the CNS, which is not the CNS neurotransmitter EPS. (B) Triazolam is a benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic whose action is mediated in the limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic levels of the CNS by Y-aminobutyric acid.
(C) Benztropine is an anticholinergic agent, and the drug of choice for blocking CNS synaptic response, which causes EPS. (D) Thiothixene is an antipsychotic and neuroleptic drug that blocks dopamine neurotransmission at the CNS synapses, thereby causing EPS.
NEW QUESTION 84
A common complication of cirrhosis of the liver is prolonged bleeding. The nurse should be prepared to administer?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Vitamin A
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Vitamin E
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Vitamin C does not directly affect clotting. (B) Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that depends on liver function for absorption. Vitamin K is essential for clotting. (C) Vitamin E does not directly affect clotting. (D) Vitamin A does not directly affect clotting.
NEW QUESTION 85
The nurse would be sure to instruct a client on the signs and symptoms of an eye infection and hemorrhage.
These signs and symptoms would include:
- A. Feeling of eye pressure and headache
- B. Eye pain and itching
- C. Eye discharge and hemoptysis
- D. Blurred vision and dizziness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Although blurred vision may occur, dizziness would not be associated with an infection or hemorrhage. (B) Eye pain is a symptom of hemorrhage within the eye, and itching is associated with infection. (C) Nausea and headache would not be usual symptoms of eye hemorrhage or infection. (D) Some eye discharge might be anticipated if an infection is present; hemoptysis would not.
NEW QUESTION 86
A 16-year-old client comes to the prenatal clinic for her monthly appointment. She has gained 14 lb from her
7th to 8th month; her face and hands indicate edema. She is diagnosed as having PIH and referred to the high- risk prenatal clinic. The client's weight increase is most likely due to:
- A. Fluid retention
- B. Hypertension due to kidney lesions
- C. Obesity prior to conception
- D. Overeating and subsequent obesity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation
Explanation:
(A) Overeating can lead to obesity, but not to edema. (B) There is no indication of obesity prior to pregnancy.
PIH is more prevalent in the underweight than in the obese in this age group. (C) Hypertension can be due to kidney lesions, but it would have been apparent earlier in the pregnancy. (D) The weight gain in PIH is due to the retention of sodium ions and fluid and is one of the three cardinal symptoms of PIH.
NEW QUESTION 87
A 3-year-old child was hospitalized for acute laryngotracheobronchitis. During her hospitalization, the child was placed under an oxygen mist tent. The nurse's frequent monitoring of the child's temperature frightened her parents. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Checking the temperature will prevent febrile seizures.
- B. Taking the child's temperature can prevent airway obstruction.
- C. Rapid temperature elevations can occur in children.
- D. Monitoring the temperature prevents undue chilling.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The refrigerated cool mist tent creates a cool, moist environment. The child as well as bedding and clothing may become dampened. Monitoring the temperature of the child will ensure warmth and prevent chilling. (B) Only a low-grade fever is expected in laryngotracheobronchitis. (C) Febrile seizures are not expected with the low-grade fever. (D) Inflammation of the mucosal lining in the respiratory tract can cause airway obstruction. However, monitoring the child's temperature would not prevent airway obstruction.
NEW QUESTION 88
A client is medically cleared for ECT and is tentatively scheduled for six treatments over a 2-week period. Her husband asks, "Isn't that a lot?" The nurse's best response is:
- A. "Don't worry. Some clients have lots more than that."
- B. "You'll have to talk to the doctor about that. The physician knows what's best for the client."
- C. "Six to 10 treatments are common. Are you concerned about permanent effects?"
- D. "Yes, that does seem like a lot."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This response indicates that the nurse is unsure of herself and not knowledgeable about ECT. It also reinforces the husband's fears. (B) This response is "passing the buck" unnecessarily. The information needed to appropriately answer the husband's question is well within the nurse's knowledge base. (C) The most common range for affective disorders is 6-10 treatments. This response confirms and reinforces the physician's plan for treatment. It also opens communicationwith the husband to identify underlying fears and knowledge deficits. (D) This response offers false reassurance and dismisses the husband's underlying concerns about his wife.
NEW QUESTION 89
A client is resting comfortably after delivering her first child. When assessing her pulse rate, the nurse would recognize the following finding to be typical:
- A. Thready pulse
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Irregular pulse
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) A thready pulse is indicative of hypotension and excessive blood loss and is often rapid. (B) Pulse irregularities or dysrhythmias do not occur in the normal postpartal woman. (C) Tachycardia occurs less frequently than bradycardia and is related to increased blood loss or prolonged difficult labor and/or birth. (D) Puerperal bradycardia with rates of 50-70 bpm commonly occurs during the first 6-10 days of the postpartal period. It may be related to decreased cardiac strain, decreased blood volume, contraction of the uterus, and increased stroke volume.
NEW QUESTION 90
A client has received preoperative teaching for the vertical partial laryngectomy that he is scheduled to have in the morning. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the client states:
- A. "I will have very little difficulty swallowing after surgery."
- B. "The quality of my voice will be excellent after surgery."
- C. "I may also have to have a radical neck dissection done."
- D. "I know I will need special swallowing training after my surgery."
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) A client with a supraglottic (horizontal partial) laryngectomy would require special swallowing training, not a vertical partial laryngectomy. (B) The quality of the client's voice will be altered but adequate for communication. (C) The client will have minimal difficulty swallowing. (D) A radical neck dissection may be done with a total laryngectomy, but not with a partial laryngectomy.
NEW QUESTION 91
The physician recommends immediate hospital admission for a client with PIH. She says to the nurse, "It's not so easy for me to just go right to the hospital like that." After acknowledging her feelings, which of these approaches by the nurse would probably be best?
- A. Explore with the client her perceptions of why she is unable to go to the hospital.
- B. Repeat the physician's reasons for advising immediate hospitalization.
- C. Explain to the client that she is ultimately responsible for her own welfare and that of her baby.
- D. Stress to the client that her husband would want her to do what is best for her health.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This answer does not hold the client accountable for her own health. (B) The nurse should explore potential reasons for the client's anxiety: are there small children at home, is the husband out of town? The nurse should aid the client in seeking support or interventions to decrease the anxiety of hospitalization. (C) Repeating the physician's reason for recommending hospitalization may not aid the client in dealing with her reasons for anxiety. (D) The concern for self and welfare of baby may be secondary to a woman who is in a crisis situation. The nurse should explore the client's potential reasons for anxiety. For example, is there another child in the home who is ill, or is there a husband who is overseas and not able to return on short notice?
NEW QUESTION 92
When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child:
- A. Regular formulas mixed with electrolyte solutions
- B. Diluted carbonated drinks
- C. Soy-based, lactose-free formula
- D. Fruit juices
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Diluted fruit juices are not recommended for rehydration because they tend to aggravate the diarrhea. (B) Diluted soft drinks have a high-carbohydrate content, which aggravates the diarrhea. (C) Soy-based, lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea in most infants. (D) Regular formulas contain lactose, which can increase diarrhea.
NEW QUESTION 93
A client has consented to have a central venous catheter placed. The best position in which to place the client is the Trendelenburg position. The reason is that the Trendelenburg position:
- A. Allows the physician to visualize the subclavian vein
- B. Makes the procedure more comfortable for the client
- C. Reduces the possibility of hematoma formation
- D. Reduces the possibility of air embolism
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The subclavian vein is not visible during central line insertion regardless of the client's position. (B) The Trendelenburg position reduces the possibility of air embolism because it places slight positive pressure on the central veins. It also distends the veins, and distention facilitates insertion. (C) This response is untrue; it has no effect on hematoma formation. (D) This position is not necessarily more comfortable for the client, and many clients, especially those who may be short of breath, may find the position uncomfortable and difficult to maintain.
NEW QUESTION 94
A male client is diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. He has been on dialysis for several years. He is experiencing symptoms such as numbness of the lips, muscle weakness, carpopedal spasms, and wheezing. Given the client's symptoms, nursing assessment would focus on:
- A. Evidence of depression
- B. Detection of hypocalcemia to prevent seizures
- C. Detection of premature cataract formation
- D. Detection of tetany
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Assessment should focus on detection of tetany, which is the most common symptom of hypoparathyroidism. Left undetected and untreated, tetany resulting from hypocalcemia can progress to seizures. (B) Hypocalcemia is difficult to detect on nursing assessment alone. Abdominal cramping may be an indication of hypocalcemia, but laboratory data are required to confirm diagnosis. (C) Depression can be a symptom of hypoparathyroidism, but it is not definitive. (D) Premature cataract formation can occur, but it also is not specific to parathyroidism and poses no immediate danger to the client.
NEW QUESTION 95
A male client is experiencing extreme distress. He begins to pace up and down the corridor. What nursing intervention is appropriate when communicating with the pacing client?
- A. Help him to recognize his anxiety.
- B. Ask him to sit down. Speak slowly and use short, simple sentences.
- C. Increase the level of his supervision.
- D. Walk with him as he paces.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should not ask him to sit down. Pacing is the activity he has chosen to deal with his anxiety.
The nurse dealing with this client should speak slowly and with short, simplesentences. (B) The client may already recognize the anxiety and is attempting to deal with it. (C) Walk with the client as he paces. This gives support while he uses anxiety-generated energy. (D) Increasing the level of supervision may be appropriate after he stops pacing. It would minimize self-injury and/or loss of control.
NEW QUESTION 96
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What is the purpose of the NCLEX-RN® Exam?
Industry recognized credentials (BLS, ACLS, PALS) are also included in the exam. Ready to be a nurse, you need to pass the NCLEX-RN® exam. Demo testing is available. Fail the exam and your future career as a nurse is jeopardized. Weight gain and weight loss, pregnancy and labor, medical problems, and death all play a role in how you do on the NCLEX-RN® exam. Service staff has the ability to change the score for students who do not answer questions. Accurate answers to every question are necessary for passing the NCLEX-RN® exam. Sufficient to pass (50 percent or more) is not sufficient. You must receive a passing score to be licensed to practice as a nurse. Passing scores are different on each test date, so make sure you study!
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